How would you know whether an ancient culture had zero?

(johndcook.com)

30 points | by ibobev 4 days ago ago

5 comments

  • conartist6 a few seconds ago

    What I wonder is: why has nobody noticed that code editors lack a concept of 0?

    When you're writing code, you can express any concept except that of an unfilled hole. We've rearranged every part of the coding process in a twisted-up way, all for the lack of a way to express lack.

    If you want to be more clear about what I mean, look to tools which can express holes like https://scratch.mit.edu and https://hazel.org

  • gmuslera 2 hours ago

    Looks like translating a positional numbering system from ancient cultures than ruling out or not if they had the concept of zero. It may be a single use symbol, here is nothing, instead of being part of bigger amounts. Numbering systems doesn't have to be positional (nor go too far).

    • whatsThisBtn4 2 hours ago

      Gosh I love Wittgenstein for this.

      I highly recommend suffering through both early and late Wittgenstein (only wrote 2 books and essentially invented one of the 3 branches of philosophy).

      Expect to only understand 10% of what he says, but that is normal.

      Separately, pragmatism by William James is an easy 4 hour read and you can have 2/3 of the branches of meta philosophy.

  • lisp2240 an hour ago

    Zero has two roles: as a positional placeholder and as a cardinal value (nothingness or net-zero). This only addresses the former.

    • j16sdiz 24 minutes ago

      Afaict, most ancient civization have conception of "nothingness" or "emptiness". The dispute is often whether they consider it as a number or not